John Donaldson has a review up on
http://www.jeremysilman.com/book_reviews_jd/Budapest_Gambit.htmlOne line mentioned there is
1.d4 Nf6 2.c4 e5 3.dxe5 Ng4 4.Bf4 Nc6 5.Nf3 Bb4+ 6.Nbd2 Qe7 7.e3. White just leaves the bishop looking sllly on b4 rather than spend a tempo on a3.
7...Nxe5 8.Nxe5 Nxe5 9.Be2 0-0 10.0-0.
Now Donaldson comments:
Quote:"Taylor points out that Black has tried not only 10…Bxd2 but also 10…Re8, 10…d6 and 10…a5 with generally miserable results. These moves force the second player to either surrender the two Bishops or allow pawn weaknesses, or both. The author’s solution is the little known 10…Bd6!? which he spends seven pages examining."
Is this a typo from Donaldson? I just don't understand how
10...Bd6 can solve Black's problems after
11.Ne4! and now:
- 11...Bc5?? 12.Qd5 d6 13.Nxc5 +-
-
11...b6 12.Nxd6 cxd6 13.Qd4 with a R coming to d1.
-
11...Nxc4 12.Bxd6 (or 12.Nxd6 Nxd6 13.Rc1 Ne8 14.Bxc7 d6 15.Ba5 b6 16.Bb4 a5 17.Bc3. White has the bishop pair and better pawns.)
12...Nxd6 13.Nxd6 cxd6 14.Rc1 with fantastic compensation.
I know some people enjoy playing with an IQP but this looks too much of a good thing!
Btw. I'm also interested in the 4.e3/5.Nh3 line you're discussing, it's a very easy solution for White.
I really find it hard to understand who the Budapest is suitable for. Even if it somehow holds up theoretically, it's a rare player who is comfortable with both patient positional play (e3/Nh3 lines), technical positions where White has the bishop pair (4.Bf4 Nc6 5.Nf3 Bb4+ lines), attacking lines with ...Ra6-h6, and playing against a big centre in lines like 4.e4 h5!? (Taylor).