Hi,
I know this thread and DVD are quite a few years old now, but I recently picked up this work for what seemed like a relatively cheap price (like $15 CAD). I was in part prompted by a recent game I had, where after 1 e4 c5 2 Nf3 e6, I went for 3 c3. The game continued 3...d5 4 exd5 Qxd5 5 d4 Nf6 6 a3 (which I vaguely recalled was Collins' tip for White, avoiding the line after 6 Be3 with ...Bb4xc3 and ...b6/...Ba6). After 6...Be7 7 Be3, we come to my question.
My opponent "obliged", so to speak, and took on d4, leading to one of the standard main lines of this variation, also reachable via 6 Be3 (I had my chances in that game, but eventually lost). However, there's also the possibility of 7...00!? (or some other non...cxd4 move). Collins discusses this briefly and gives a game of his going 8 Be2, when after 8...cxd4 9 cxd4 etc., he admits that Black has forced White to put his Bishop on e2 instead of d3, but he likes the IQP for White anyways. Fair enough.
But wait, if 8 Be2 is the best White can do there, and the Bishop would rather be on d3 than e2, does that mean 7...00!? is simply the more accurate move order for Black? And if White can be moveordered into sticking his Bishop on e2, does that mean 6 a3 is unnecessary, and that we should just start with 6 Be2.
I notice Collins has switched to 6 Bd3 for his more recent "Simple Repertoire" book. Could this have something to do with it?
Thanks.
