I know the basic theory and plans of these lines; for instance, I have Ziegler's DVD and a couple of books on the French Defence, as well as NCO, Chessbase 8, etc.  I also know something of the nuances of playing 12. Bg5 v.s. 12. Nc3 a6 13. Bg5.  What I'm asking is this:

Ziegler recommends 10...Bd6, and most players play this move.  However, Ziegler (and most others) end up playing 10...Bd6 11.0-0 Qc7.  Now, since we're heading for this position anyway, is there any reason why I should allow White to play 10...Bd6 11.Bf4?  Is it really that great for Black to allow White this extra choice?  Is there a reason to NOT recommend 10...Qc7, which seems to head for the same position (after 11.0-0 Bd6) without allowing 10...Bd6 11.Bf4?  Is there anything wrong with 10...Qc7???

Okay I hope that clears up my question...

Maybe it's just me, but isn't it a bit comic to  recommend to an achieve an exchange in three moves, instead of of one?

My question concerns the position after the following moves:

1.e4 e6 2.d4 d5 3.Nd2 Nf6 4.e5 Nfd7 5.Bd3 c5 6.c3 Nc6 7.Ne2 cxd4 8.cxd4 f6 9.exf6 Nxf6 10.Nf3 

A few years ago (the last time I played the French semi-regularly) I was under the impression that 10...Qc7! was the best move here, because it avoided the line 10...Bd6 11.Bf4 (if 10...Qc7 11.Bf4 Bb4+ is supposed to be annoying for White).  However, I've noticed that most players still seem to play 10...Bd6 anyway.  Why is that?  Is the choice between 10...Qc7 and 10...Bd6 purely a matter of taste, or is their some particular reason that 10...Qc7 isn't played more often?